-=Dark_Angel=-, P.I.24 Mar 2005

Utter, utter tosh. By "two minds M and N are equivalent", I mean: For every proposition P, M is open to P iff N is open to P. That in no way entails that the two minds "belong to the same person".

Trivial example: I replicate my uncle in an Uncle-replicator. Uncle and Uncle-2 are both open to exactly the same propositions, at least for a short while after replication. Therefore Uncle and Uncle-2's minds are equivalent with respect to openness. But Uncle and Uncle-2 are separate people. QED.

Is this really beyond you, or are you deliberately being dim?